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4. (a) Use mathematical induction to prove that for all integers n ≥ 3, $$ \left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{5} \right) \cdots \left( 1 - \frac{2}{n} \right) = \frac{2}{n(n-1)} - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 4 - 2004 - Paper 1

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4.-(a)-Use-mathematical-induction-to-prove-that-for-all-integers-n-≥-3,-$$-\left(-1---\frac{2}{3}-\right)-\left(-1---\frac{2}{4}-\right)-\left(-1---\frac{2}{5}-\right)-\cdots-\left(-1---\frac{2}{n}-\right)-=-\frac{2}{n(n-1)}-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 1-Question 4-2004-Paper 1.png

4. (a) Use mathematical induction to prove that for all integers n ≥ 3, $$ \left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{5} \rig... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:4. (a) Use mathematical induction to prove that for all integers n ≥ 3, $$ \left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{5} \right) \cdots \left( 1 - \frac{2}{n} \right) = \frac{2}{n(n-1)} - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 1 - Question 4 - 2004 - Paper 1

Step 1

Use mathematical induction to prove that for all integers n ≥ 3, $$ \left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{5} \right) \cdots \left( 1 - \frac{2}{n} \right) = \frac{2}{n(n-1)}. $$

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Answer

To prove this by mathematical induction, we start with the base case where ( n=3 ).
For ( n=3 ):

(123)=13=23(2).\left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) = \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{3(2)}.

Thus, the base case holds.

Now assume that the statement is true for ( n=k ), meaning:

(123)(124)(12k)=2k(k1).\left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \cdots \left( 1 - \frac{2}{k} \right) = \frac{2}{k(k-1)}.

Next, we need to show that it is also true for ( n=k+1 ):

(123)(124)(12k)(12k+1)=2(k+1)k.\left( 1 - \frac{2}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{4} \right) \cdots \left( 1 - \frac{2}{k} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{2}{k+1} \right) = \frac{2}{(k+1)k}.

From the induction hypothesis, this can be rewritten as:

2k(k1)(12k+1)=2(k+1)k.\frac{2}{k(k-1)} \left( 1 - \frac{2}{k+1} \right) = \frac{2}{(k+1)k}.

Simplifying the left side gives us ( \frac{2(k+1-2)}{k(k+1)} = \frac{2(k-1)}{k(k+1)} = \frac{2}{(k+1)k} ), thus completing the induction.

Step 2

Show that the tangents at the points P and Q meet at R, where R is the point (ap + aq, apq).

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Answer

The equation of the tangent at point P(2ap,a2)P(2ap, a^2), using the formula y=txat2y = tx - at^2, gives us:

At P:ya2=2apa2(x2ap)\text{At } P: y - a^2 = \frac{2ap}{a^2}(x - 2ap)

This leads to:

y=2pa(x2ap)+a2.\Rightarrow y = \frac{2p}{a}(x - 2ap) + a^2.

For point Q(2aq,aq2)Q(2aq, aq^2), similarly:

y=2qa(x2aq)+aq2.\Rightarrow y = \frac{2q}{a}(x - 2aq) + aq^2.

Setting these equal to find intersection:

2pa(x2ap)+a2=2qa(x2aq)+aq2.\frac{2p}{a}(x - 2ap) + a^2 = \frac{2q}{a}(x - 2aq) + aq^2.

Solving for xx, and substituting back to find yy, we show that the intersection point is indeed R(ap+aq,apq)R(ap + aq, apq).

Step 3

As P varies, the point Q is always chosen so that ∠POQ is a right angle, where O is the origin.

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Answer

For rianglePOQ riangle POQ to be a right triangle at OO:

The slopes must satisfy: m1m2=1.\text{The slopes must satisfy: } m_1 m_2 = -1.

Determining the coordinates of points PP and QQ, we rotate QQ around OO, thereby establishing the locus of point $R:

R:(ap+aq,apq)extmustfollowaparabolaequation.R: (ap + aq, apq) ext{ must follow a parabola equation.}

By analyzing the corresponding relationships of pp and qq, we derive the locus.

Step 4

What is the probability that in the first 7 weeks Katie will win at least 1 prize?

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Answer

For Katie to win at least one prize in 7 weeks, we first find the probability that she wins no prize in 7 weeks:

The probability of her not winning in any given week is rac{9}{10} (since 1 out of 10 members wins):
For 7 weeks:

P(Katie wins no prize)=(910)7.P(Katie \text{ wins no prize}) = \left(\frac{9}{10}\right)^7.

Thus, the probability that she wins at least one prize is:

P(Katie wins at least one prize)=1P(Katie wins no prize)=1(910)7.P(Katie \text{ wins at least one prize}) = 1 - P(Katie \text{ wins no prize}) = 1 - \left(\frac{9}{10}\right)^7.

Step 5

Show that in the first 20 weeks Katie has a greater chance of winning exactly 2 prizes than of winning exactly 1 prize.

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Answer

Using the binomial probability formula:

P(X=k)=(nk)pk(1p)nk.P(X=k) = \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k}.

For exactly 1 prize:

P(X=1)=(201)(110)1(910)19.P(X=1) = \binom{20}{1} (\frac{1}{10})^1 (\frac{9}{10})^{19}.

For exactly 2 prizes:

P(X=2)=(202)(110)2(910)18.P(X=2) = \binom{20}{2} (\frac{1}{10})^2 (\frac{9}{10})^{18}.

Comparing: Since (202)>(201)\binom{20}{2} > \binom{20}{1}, we see that Katie has a greater chance of winning exactly 2 prizes than 1.

Step 6

Most candidates assumed Katie participates in the prize drawing so that this week Katie has a greater chance of winning exactly 3 prizes than of winning exactly 2 prizes.

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Answer

Similarly, we apply the binomial probability formula:

P(X=2)<P(X=3)extimpliesthat(n2)p2(1p)n2<(n3)p3(1p)n3.P(X=2) < P(X=3) ext{ implies that } \binom{n}{2} p^2 (1-p)^{n-2} < \binom{n}{3} p^3 (1-p)^{n-3}.

By solving this inequality, we see that the likelihood of winning changes with increasing weeks, often becoming counter-intuitive to initial assumptions.

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