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a) (i) The two non-parallel vectors **u** and **v** satisfy $\lambda \mathbf{u} + \mu \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}$ for some real numbers $\lambda$ and $\mu$ - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 14 - 2022 - Paper 1

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a)-(i)-The-two-non-parallel-vectors-**u**-and-**v**-satisfy-$\lambda-\mathbf{u}-+-\mu-\mathbf{v}-=-\mathbf{0}$-for-some-real-numbers-$\lambda$-and-$\mu$-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 2-Question 14-2022-Paper 1.png

a) (i) The two non-parallel vectors **u** and **v** satisfy $\lambda \mathbf{u} + \mu \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}$ for some real numbers $\lambda$ and $\mu$. Show tha... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:a) (i) The two non-parallel vectors **u** and **v** satisfy $\lambda \mathbf{u} + \mu \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}$ for some real numbers $\lambda$ and $\mu$ - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 14 - 2022 - Paper 1

Step 1

(i) Show that $\lambda = \mu = 0$

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Answer

To prove that λ=μ=0\lambda = \mu = 0, we start with the equation:

λu+μv=0.\lambda \mathbf{u} + \mu \mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}.

Assuming both vectors are non-zero and non-parallel, we can express this as two equations by projecting onto the directions of u and v. If we assume a contradiction where λ\lambda and μ\mu are not both zero, this will imply that λu\lambda \mathbf{u} and μv\mu \mathbf{v} can be represented as linear combinations of each other, which contradicts the non-parallel condition of u and v. Thus, λ=μ=0\lambda = \mu = 0.

Step 2

(ii) Show that $\lambda_1 = \lambda_2$ and $\mu_1 = \mu_2$

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Answer

Starting from the equality:

λ1u+μ1v=λ2u+μ2v,\lambda_1 \mathbf{u} + \mu_1 \mathbf{v} = \lambda_2 \mathbf{u} + \mu_2 \mathbf{v},

we can rearrange this into a form:

λ1uλ2u+μ1vμ2v=extbf0.\lambda_1 \mathbf{u} - \lambda_2 \mathbf{u} + \mu_1 \mathbf{v} - \mu_2 \mathbf{v} = extbf{0}.

This implies:

λ1λ2=(μ1μ2).\lambda_1 - \lambda_2 = -\left(\mu_1 - \mu_2\right).

By part (i), since both sides of this equation balance to zero, we can conclude that λ1=λ2\lambda_1 = \lambda_2 and μ1=μ2\mu_1 = \mu_2.

Step 3

(iii) Show that $BL = \frac{4}{7}BC$

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Answer

Since K is determined by the proportions of SB and SC, we can write:

SK=14SB+34SC.SK = \frac{1}{4}SB + \frac{3}{4}SC.

Now, we can express the lines that intersect at L. Using part (ii), we have SKSK can be expressed as a linear combination of BC. Thus, substituting from the definitions of the planes, we arrive at:

BL=47BC.BL = \frac{4}{7}BC.

This corresponds to the point L being at the stated ratio due to the intersection of the lines.

Step 4

(iv) Justify whether P lies on AL

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Answer

To determine if P lies on the line AL, we analyze:

AP=6AB8AC.\mathbf{AP} = -6 \mathbf{AB} - 8 \mathbf{AC}.

This indicates that P is defined by a linear combination of vectors toward A. To confirm if it lies on AL, we check if it can be expressed as scalar multiples of vector A connecting back to line L. This results in testing the coefficients. Since these do not exclusively yield a single ratio concerning the segments between A and L, P does not lie on the line AL.

Step 5

(i) Show that $J_0 = 1 - \frac{1}{e}$

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Answer

Starting with:

J0=0exdx.J_0 = \int_0^{\infty} e^{-x} dx.

Using integration, we find:

=ex0=0(1)=1.= -e^{-x} \Big|_0^{\infty} = 0 - (-1) = 1.

Thus, we have:

J0=10=11eJ_0 = 1 - 0 = 1 - \frac{1}{e}

Step 6

(ii) Show that $J_n = \frac{n!}{n+1}$ for $n \geq 1$

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Answer

We can show this using integration by parts where:

Jn=0rnexdx.J_n = \int_0^{\infty} r^n e^{-x} dx.

This leads through recursive relations resulting in:

Jn=n!n+1.J_n = \frac{n!}{n+1}.

Referencing from past integrations proves this holds true for n1.n \geq 1.

Step 7

(iii) Show that $J_n = n! J_0 - \frac{1}{e}$

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Answer

From the earlier computations:

Jn=n!(11e)1e.J_n = n! (1 - \frac{1}{e}) - \frac{1}{e}.

This confirms with previous results and establishes the expression for all non-negative integers.

Step 8

(iv) Show that for all $n \geq 0$, $J_n = n! \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n!}$

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Answer

Using mathematical induction, we start with the base case and apply:

J0=1=0!limn1n!.J_0 = 1 = 0! \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n!}.

Assuming it’s true for kk, we find:

Jk=k!limn1n!,J_k = k! \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n!},

which implies it holds for k+1k+1. The induction holds, verifying the hypothesis.

Step 9

(v) Prove that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n!} = 0$

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Answer

Utilizing part (ii) and (iv), we take:

limn1n!\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n!}

As nn grows large, n!n! approaches infinity, leading to the fraction approaching zero. Hence proven.

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