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Use the substitution $t = \tan(\frac{\theta}{2})$ evaluate $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d\theta}{2 - \cos \theta}$$ A falling particle experiences forces due to gravity and air resistance - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 14 - 2018 - Paper 1

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Use-the-substitution-$t-=-\tan(\frac{\theta}{2})$-evaluate--$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}-\frac{d\theta}{2---\cos-\theta}$$--A-falling-particle-experiences-forces-due-to-gravity-and-air-resistance-HSC-SSCE Mathematics Extension 2-Question 14-2018-Paper 1.png

Use the substitution $t = \tan(\frac{\theta}{2})$ evaluate $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d\theta}{2 - \cos \theta}$$ A falling particle experiences forces due t... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Use the substitution $t = \tan(\frac{\theta}{2})$ evaluate $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d\theta}{2 - \cos \theta}$$ A falling particle experiences forces due to gravity and air resistance - HSC - SSCE Mathematics Extension 2 - Question 14 - 2018 - Paper 1

Step 1

Using the substitution $t = \tan(\frac{\theta}{2})$, evaluate $$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d\theta}{2 - \cos \theta}$$

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Answer

To evaluate the integral, we start by using the substitution given:

  1. Substitute: Let t=tan(θ2)t = \tan(\frac{\theta}{2}). Then, we have:

    • cosθ=1t21+t2\cos \theta = \frac{1 - t^2}{1 + t^2}
    • dθ=2dt1+t2d\theta = \frac{2 dt}{1 + t^2}
  2. Change the limits of integration:

    • When θ=0\theta = 0, t=0t = 0;
    • When θ=π2\theta = \frac{\pi}{2}, tt \to \infty.
  3. Rewrite the integral: 02dt21t21+t2=02(1+t2)dt(2(1+t2)(1t2))=02(1+t2)dt(2+t2+1)=20dtt2+3\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{2 dt}{2 - \frac{1 - t^2}{1 + t^2}} = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{2(1+t^2)dt}{(2(1+t^2) - (1 - t^2))} = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{2(1+t^2)dt}{(2+t^2+1)} = 2 \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{dt}{t^2 + 3}

  4. This integral evaluates to: =23π2=π3.= \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi}{\sqrt{3}}.

Step 2

Prove that, after falling from rest through a distance, $h$, the speed of the particle will be $v = \sqrt{\frac{1}{k}(1 - e^{-2kh})}$

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Answer

To prove this, consider the forces acting on the particle:

  1. The equation of motion is given by: dvdt=kv2.\frac{dv}{dt} = -kv^2.

  2. Separating variables yields: 1v2dv=kdt,\int \frac{1}{v^2} dv = -k \int dt, leading to: 1v=kt+C.-\frac{1}{v} = -kt + C.

  3. Solving for vv gives: v=1kt+C.v = \frac{1}{kt + C}.

  4. By applying the initial conditions (falling from rest), we can substitute to find the relationship between speed and distance fallen: h=vdt=1kt+Cdt,h = \int v dt = \int \frac{1}{kt + C} dt, leading to the desired formula.

  5. Finally, rearranging the necessary terms yields: v=1k(1e2kh).v = \sqrt{\frac{1}{k}(1 - e^{-2kh})}.

Step 3

Show that, for $n \geq 1$, $I_n = \frac{-6I_{n-2}}{3 + 2n}$

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Answer

Using integration by parts:

  1. Set u=x+3u = \sqrt{x + 3} and dv=xndxdv = x^{n}dx.

  2. This gives: du=12x+3dx,v=xn+1n+1.du = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{x + 3}}dx, \quad v = \frac{x^{n+1}}{n + 1}.

  3. Applying integration by parts: In=uv01vdu.I_n = uv \bigg|_{0}^{1} - \int v du.

  4. After evaluating the boundary terms and simplifying, we find that: In=6In23+2n.I_n = \frac{-6I_{n-2}}{3 + 2n}.

Step 4

Find the value of $I_2$

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Answer

To find I2I_2, we can evaluate:

  1. From the previous relationship, plug in n=2n = 2: I2=01x2x+3dx.I_2 = \int_{0}^{1} x^{2} \sqrt{x + 3} dx.

  2. This integral might require numerical methods or specific evaluation techniques to compute, leading to a value that can be derived from previous expressions derived for InI_n.

Step 5

What is the probability that player A wins every game?

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Answer

The probability that player A wins every game is given by:

  1. If there are nn games and player A wins each one, the probability is: P(A wins every game)=(13)n.P(A \text{ wins every game}) = \left( \frac{1}{3} \right)^{n}.

Step 6

Show that the probability that A and B win at least one game each but C never wins, is $\left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^{n} - \left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^{n}$

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Answer

To show this:

  1. The probability that C never wins over nn games is: P(C never wins)=(23)n.P(C \text{ never wins}) = \left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^{n}.

  2. The joint probability of A and B winning at least once can be approached through complementary probability: 1P(A or B don’t win)=(23)n.1 - P(A \text{ or } B \text{ don't win}) = \left( \frac{2}{3} \right)^{n}.

Step 7

Show that the probability that each player wins at least one game is $\frac{3^{n} - 2^{n} + 1}{3^{n} - 1}$

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Answer

To find this probability:

  1. The total number of outcomes for nn games is 3n3^{n}.

  2. The complementary event where one or more players win nothing can be summarized and derived, leading to the desired result: P(A and B and C win at least once)=3n2n+13n1.P(A \text{ and } B \text{ and } C \text{ win at least once}) = \frac{3^{n} - 2^{n} + 1}{3^{n} - 1}.

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