Photo AI

Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}$ - AQA - A-Level Maths Mechanics - Question 11 - 2019 - Paper 1

Question icon

Question 11

Jodie-is-attempting-to-use-differentiation-from-first-principles-to-prove-that-the-gradient-of---$y-=--ext{sin}-\,-x$-is-zero-when-$x-=-\frac{\pi}{2}$-AQA-A-Level Maths Mechanics-Question 11-2019-Paper 1.png

Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}$. Jodie's tea... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}$ - AQA - A-Level Maths Mechanics - Question 11 - 2019 - Paper 1

Step 1

For gradient of curve at A,

96%

114 rated

Answer

To find the gradient of the curve at point A, we start with the limit definition of the derivative.
Firstly, we need to replace h=0h = 0. As we take the limit, we set:
limh0sin(π2+h)sin(π2)h\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}+h) - \text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h}

Now, applying the angle addition formula for sine gives us:
=sin(π2)cos(h)+cos(π2)sin(h)sin(π2)= \text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cos(h) + \text{cos}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \text{sin}(h) - \text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2})
Since sin(π2)=1\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 1 and cos(π2)=0\text{cos}(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0, this simplifies to:
=(1cos(h))+(0sin(h))1=cos(h)1= (1 \cdot \cos(h)) + (0 \cdot \text{sin}(h)) - 1 = \cos(h) - 1
So, we rewrite the limit as:
limh0cos(h)1h\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\cos(h) - 1}{h}
Using the definition of derivatives, we know that as h0h \to 0, cos(h)1\cos(h) \to 1 and sin(h)h\text{sin}(h) \to h.
Thus, applying L'Hôpital's Rule:
=limh0sin(h)1=0= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{-\sin(h)}{1} = 0
This confirms that the gradient at point A is indeed 00.

Step 2

Hence the gradient of the curve at A is given by

99%

104 rated

Answer

sin(π2)0+cos(π2)1=0\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cdot 0 + \cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cdot 1 = 0

Join the A-Level students using SimpleStudy...

97% of Students

Report Improved Results

98% of Students

Recommend to friends

100,000+

Students Supported

1 Million+

Questions answered

;