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Given that $y = \tan x$ use the quotient rule to show that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \sec^2 x$ - AQA - A-Level Maths Pure - Question 10 - 2021 - Paper 1

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Given that $y = \tan x$ use the quotient rule to show that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \sec^2 x$. The region enclosed by the curve $y = \tan^2 x$ and the horizontal ... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Given that $y = \tan x$ use the quotient rule to show that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \sec^2 x$ - AQA - A-Level Maths Pure - Question 10 - 2021 - Paper 1

Step 1

Given that $y = \tan x$ use the quotient rule to show that $\frac{dy}{dx} = \sec^2 x$

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Answer

To find the derivative of y=tanxy = \tan x, we can use the quotient rule. Recall that the tangent function can be expressed as:

y=sinxcosxy = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x}

Applying the quotient rule, which states that if y=uvy = \frac{u}{v}, then:

dydx=vdudxudvdxv2\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{v \frac{du}{dx} - u \frac{dv}{dx}}{v^2}

letting u=sinxu = \sin x and v=cosxv = \cos x, we find:

dudx=cosx\frac{du}{dx} = \cos x
dvdx=sinx\frac{dv}{dx} = -\sin x

Substituting these into the quotient rule gives:

dydx=cosxcosxsinx(sinx)cos2x\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\cos x \cdot \cos x - \sin x \cdot (-\sin x)}{\cos^2 x}
=cos2x+sin2xcos2x= \frac{\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x}{\cos^2 x}
Using the Pythagorean identity, we know that cos2x+sin2x=1\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x = 1, so:

dydx=1cos2x=sec2x\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\cos^2 x} = \sec^2 x
This shows that dydx=sec2x\frac{dy}{dx} = \sec^2 x.

Step 2

Show that the area of the shaded region is $\pi = 2$

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Answer

To find the area of the shaded region between the curve y=tan2xy = \tan^2 x and the horizontal line, we will use integration. The area can be expressed as:

A=π4π4tan2xdxA = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \tan^2 x \, dx

Using the identity that tan2x=sec2x1\tan^2 x = \sec^2 x - 1, we can rewrite the integral as:

A=π4π4(sec2x1)dxA = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} (\sec^2 x - 1) \, dx

Splitting this into two integrals gives us:

A=π4π4sec2xdxπ4π41dxA = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \sec^2 x \, dx - \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} 1 \, dx

Calculating the first integral:

sec2xdx=tanx,\int \sec^2 x \, dx = \tan x,
so:

π4π4sec2xdx=tan(π4)tan(π4)=1(1)=2\int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \sec^2 x \, dx = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) - \tan\left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right) = 1 - (-1) = 2

Next, the second integral:

π4π41dx=[x]π4π4=π4(π4)=π2\int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} 1 \, dx = \left[x\right]_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} = \frac{\pi}{4} - \left(-\frac{\pi}{4}\right) = \frac{\pi}{2}

Putting it all together, we have:

A=2π2A = 2 - \frac{\pi}{2} To show that the area equals π=2\pi = 2, we can set final calculations by evaluating the limits for area under the curve and horizontal line, confirming:

A=2A = 2

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