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Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}.$ Jodie's teacher tells her that she has made mistakes starting in Step 4 of her working - AQA - A-Level Maths Pure - Question 11 - 2019 - Paper 1

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Jodie-is-attempting-to-use-differentiation-from-first-principles-to-prove-that-the-gradient-of---$y-=--ext{sin}-\,-x$-is-zero-when-$x-=-\frac{\pi}{2}.$----Jodie's-teacher-tells-her-that-she-has-made-mistakes-starting-in-Step-4-of-her-working-AQA-A-Level Maths Pure-Question 11-2019-Paper 1.png

Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}.$ Jodie's te... show full transcript

Worked Solution & Example Answer:Jodie is attempting to use differentiation from first principles to prove that the gradient of $y = ext{sin} \, x$ is zero when $x = \frac{\pi}{2}.$ Jodie's teacher tells her that she has made mistakes starting in Step 4 of her working - AQA - A-Level Maths Pure - Question 11 - 2019 - Paper 1

Step 1

For gradient of curve at A,

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Answer

To find the gradient of the curve at point A, we start by applying the limit definition of the derivative. We first replace hh with 0:

limh0sin(π2+h)sin(π2)h \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2} + h) - \text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h}

Using the sine addition formula, we simplify this to:

sin(π2)cos(h)+cos(π2)sin(h)sin(π2)h \frac{\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cos(h) + \text{cos}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \text{sin}(h) - \text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h}

Now substituting sin(π2)=1\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 1 and cos(π2)=0\text{cos}(\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0, we get:

limh01cos(h)1h+0 \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{1 \cdot \cos(h) - 1}{h} + 0

Next, we evaluate the limits. We know that as hh approaches zero, cos(h)\cos(h) approaches 1, so we focus on:

limh0cos(h)1h0 and sin(h)h1.\text{lim}_{h \to 0} \frac{\cos(h) - 1}{h} \to 0\text{ and } \frac{\text{sin}(h)}{h} \to 1.

Thus, the corresponding gradient yields zero:

Hence,
sin(π2)0+cos(π2)1=0.\text{sin}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cdot 0 + \text{cos}(\frac{\pi}{2}) \cdot 1 = 0.

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